Welcome! Today we're tackling Last-Digit Proofs Using Prime Factorisation — a powerful technique that settles questions about digits once and for all.
Here's the puzzle:
Can end in the digit 0?
Checking a few values — 4, 16, 64, 256 — might suggest no, but that's not a proof. You haven't checked all values.
There's a way to settle the question for ALL at once:
By the end of this section, you'll be able to:
| Goal | What you'll do |
|---|---|
| Prove | Whether any power can or cannot end in 0 |
| Understand | The general rule in terms of prime factors |
Can end in the digit 0?
Checking a few values:
...might suggest no, but that's not a proof. You haven't checked all values!
There's a way to settle this question definitively, and it starts with translating the digit condition into the language of prime factors.
Here's what we know:
A number ends in the digit 0 when it is divisible by 10.
Examples:
Your turn 🤔
If a number ends in the digit 0, what two prime factors must it have?
Explain the chain of reasoning from 'ends in 0' to the prime factor requirement.
Here's the chain of reasoning:
Step 1: 'Ends in 0' means the number is divisible by 10.
This is our starting point — the connection between the last digit and divisibility.
The last digit tells you the remainder when dividing by 10. If the last digit is 0, the remainder is 0, meaning exact divisibility.
Think about it: 30÷10 divided by 10 gives remainder 0. 140 divided by 10 gives remainder 0. 1000 divided by 10 gives remainder 0. See the pattern?
Step 2: . These are the prime factors of 10.
Step 3: For a number to be divisible by 10, it must be divisible by both 2 AND 5.
You need both — being divisible by just 2 (like 8) or just 5 (like 15) is not enough.
So the translation is:
Ends in 0 → divisible by 10 → has both 2 and 5 as prime factors.
This translation is the key move. It converts a question about digits (which feels hard to prove for all cases) into a question about prime factors (which FTA can handle definitively).
You have the translation — ending in 0 means the number must be divisible by both 2 and 5.
Now let's put it to work on a specific base.
The argument combines the prime factorisation of the base with FTA uniqueness to give a complete proof.
Here's what you know:
Prove that can never end with the digit 0key, for any natural number .
Your proof must explicitly use the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic.
Here's the complete proof:
Step 1 — Factorise the base: .
Step 2 — Raise to the nth power: .
There's no 5 anywhere!
Step 3 — List the prime factors: The only prime factor is 2. The number 5 does not appearmissing!.
Step 4 — Invoke FTA: By the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, the prime factorisation is the unique prime factorisation of . There is no other way to write this number as a product of primes. So 5 cannot appear in any factorisation — it genuinely does not divide .
Step 5 — Connect to the digit condition:
Ending in 0 requires divisibility by , which requires BOTH 2 and 5 as prime factors.
Since 5 is absentmissing! from the prime factorisation of , we have:
is not divisible by 10, and therefore cannot end in 0.
The FTA step (Step 4) is what separates a proof from a pattern observation.
Without it, someone could say "maybe there's some huge where 5key factor sneaks into the factorisation."
FTA says no — the factorisation is unique, so what you see is all there is.
You proved it for base 4. Now let's see whether you can apply the same reasoning to a base where the answer is less obvious — and identify which prime is missing.
You've proved that cannot end in 0 because its factorisation only contains 2, with no 5.
Now consider a different base: 15new base.
Your Turn 🧠
Does end in 0 for any natural number ?
Prove your answer using prime factorisation and FTA. Identify specifically which prime is present✓ and which is missing✗.
This is a tricky one because 15 has a factor of 5, so students often think "it must end in 0."
But ending in 0 needs BOTH 2 and 5.
| Number | Prime Factorisation | Has 2? | Has 5? | Ends in 0? |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| ❌ NoMissing! | ✅ Yes | ❌ No |
Let's factorise: . So .
Prime factors present: 3 and 5.
Prime factor missing: 2key!.
By FTA uniqueness, 2 cannot appear in any factorisation of — the factorisation is the only one.
So will NEVER be divisible by 10, and therefore will NEVER end in 0.
Since lacks the factor 2, it is not divisible by 2, hence not divisible by , hence cannot end in 0proven!.
Let's verify with examples:
All end in 5, not 0.pattern
The pattern: Having a factor of 5 is not enough. You need both 2 AND 5. Miss either one, and the number cannot end in 0.
You've now seen bases that lack 5 (like ) and bases that lack 2 (like ) — neither can end in 0.
The final step is to state the complete rule:
For which bases does the power always end in 0?
Here's what you've established so far:
| Base | Prime Factors | Ends in 0? |
|---|---|---|
| only 2 | Never | |
| 3 and 5 (no 2) | Never | |
| 2 and 5 | Always |
The key difference: has both 2 and 5key as prime factors.
State the general rule:
For which values of the base does always end in 0 (for all )?
Express your answer in terms of the prime factorisation of .
Also give:
Let's build the general rule from what you've seen:
Ending in 0 requires divisibility by . So ends in 0 only if it has both 2 and 5 as prime factors.
Now, the prime factors of are exactly the prime factors of (just with larger exponents). So:
Therefore: always ends in 0 if and only if the prime factorisation of contains BOTH 2 and 5.
Why both? Because . To guarantee a trailing zero, we need at least one factor of 10 in , which requires both prime factors 2 and 5 to be present in itself.
Examples that always end in 0:
Examples that never end in 0:
The deep insight: Last-digit questions are prime-factor questions in disguise.
The translation "ends in 0 → divisible by 10 → has 2 and 5" is the move that unlocks the proofkey.